How does Macbeth follow what is expected in a Shakespearean Tragedy?

I believe that William Shakespe ar wrote Macbeth according to the expected outlines that a Shakespearean cataclysm must have. He achieved this in all aspects of the play. Shakespeare also employ some of the ideas from the Classical Greek Tragedy. Shakespeares tragedy affected Macbeth and the plenty that he impacted. Shakespeare used magic, evil, mental illness and death to need most of his ideas.

The Tragedy of Macbeth is undoubtedly one of the darkest portraits of a scoundrel that Shakespeare could have ever written. The first sign of a Shakespearean tragedy is the fact that Macbeth is a noble man. The second feature article of a Shakespearean tragedy in the play is when Macbeth and Banquo are met by the witches who tell a Prophesy;

        All amount, Macbeth, hail to thee, Thane of Glamis. (Witch 1)

        All hail, Macbeth, hail to thee, Thane of Cawdor. (Witch 2)

        All hail, Macbeth that shall be office hither after. (Witch 3)

Act 1 Scene 3 Line 46-49

The Prophesy and madam Macbeths very strong influence on Macbeths decisions (as she seems to over source him greatly, in a type of revengeful way for her non begin able to have children.) are the causes of Macbeths fatal flaw.



This occurs when he is lacerate between the choices to follow what is right or his insufficiencys (and Lady Macbeths wants). In the end, his wants over power what is right and this is the start of Macbeths bloody overturn to power including the murder of the Scottish king, and the guilt-ridden pathology of evil workings generating even more evil deeds. The result of the murder of the king makes Macbeths position higher (affecting his heavier fall).

The Guilt of his evil deeds is shown in Macbeths quote-

        

Ill go no more. I am afraid to think...

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